a) Plan Scope
b) Define scope
c) Collect requirements
d) None of the above
22) Change requests are the outputs of which process:
a) Validate Scope
b) Define Scope
c) Control Scope
d) Change Scope
23) The development of the scope management plan and the detailing of the project scope begin with:
a) Analysis of information contained in the project charter
b) the latest approved subsidiary plans of the project management plan
c) Historical information contained in the organizational process assets
d) any other relevant enterprise environmental factors
24) Project charter:
a) Is an output of Develop Project Charter
b) Is an input to Develop Project Management Plan
c) Uses Project statement of work as one of its inputs
d) All of the above
25) An example of organizational process asset is:
a) Company policy document
b) Formal and informal plans
c) Completed schedules
d) All of the above
26) Perform Qualitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Project Risk Management?
a) Planning
b) Executing
c) Monitoring
d) Controlling
27) Perform Quantitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Project Risk Management:
a) Planning
b) Executing
c) Monitoring
d) Controlling
28) Risk register is an output of:
a) Identify Risks
b) Perform Qualitative risk analysis
c) Perform Quantitative risk analysis
d) Plan Risk responses
29) Updates to the risk register is an output of:
a) Perform Quantitative risk analysis
b) Perform Qualitative risk analysis
c) Control risks
d) All of the above
30) Control risks produces the following outputs:
.1 Work performance information
.2 Change requests
.3 Project management plan updates
.4 All of the above
31) Control risks produces the following outputs:
a. Project management plan updates
b. Project documents updates
c. Organizational process assets updates
d) All of the above
32) A risk is a bad event that will adversely impact the project. This statement is:
a) Always true
b) Always false
c) Sometimes true
d) None of the above
33) The triple constraints in project management are:
a) Scope, Time, cost
b) Time, scope, performance
c) Scope, Time, plan
d) Scope, Time, quality
34) Any changes to the project after the plan is prepared:
i) Have to be processed according to the Integrated Change Control process
ii) Have to be assessed for impact
iii) Can be done without impact analysis if the impact is zero or minimal
iv) Should not be done as they were not in the original plan
a) i, ii
b) i, ii, iii
c) i, ii, iv
d) None of the above
35) Develop Schedule produces the following output:
a) Project schedule
b) WBS
c) Activity time
d) Project plan
36) Critical path is:
a) The time it takes to finish the project completing only the critical activities
b) Difference between end time and start time of project
c) The sequence of activities that represents the longest path
through a project, which determines the shortest possible project duration
d) The sequence of activities that represents the shortest path
through a project, which determines the longest possible project duration
37) When there are multiple critical paths in a project:
a) The risk is less as it is divided between the paths
b) The risk is more as the risk of delay is more
c) Risk depends on how the critical path is calculated
d) There is no risk as the paths cancel it out
38) Dummy activities are used in:
a) Activity on arrow diagram
b) Activity decomposition
c) Activity list
d) Activity duration estimates
39) Software Project A took 5 months to complete. Project B, very similar to Project A will probably take about 5 months to complete. This expert judgement technique is:
a) Analogous estimating
b) Critical path
c) Expert estimation
d) Compression
40) Crashing:
a) Is a schedule compression technique
b) Increases cost
c) Is achieved by adding resources
d) All of the above
